The New York Times published a news article on Nancy Pelosi’s decision to allow the Stupak amendment to come up for a vote. Their phraseology leads to a few questions.
In the end, Ms. Pelosi decided that abortion opponents would be allowed to offer an amendment to the health care bill that would impose tight restrictions on abortions that could be offered through a new government-run insurance plan and through private insurance that is bought using government subsidies that the legislation would provide to moderate-Americans to help them afford health coverage.
I’m seriously stumped. What does “moderate American” even mean there?
Are just the people who would use the abortion coverage “moderate-Americans.” I need to know this because I am not a moderate-American? Will I be covered under this plan if I’m not moderate?
Do they mean “moderate income Americans?” If so, are we really so politically correct that we can’t call them “low income” or how about good ol’ “poor?”
Question number two (and an even weirder turn of phrase) is the part where they describe the Stupak amendement as one that would “impose tight restrictions on abortions.” Doesn’t Stupak ban federal money going to abortion?
Tight restrictions is different than a ban, isn’t it? Is this just the Times hoping that it’s not a real ban? Just bad editing? Or does a “ban” sometimes not mean a “ban?”